TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Questions & Answers 2023 (Latest): Numerical, Verbal, & Reasoning Ability Q/A

TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Questions & Answers 2023 | NQT Cognitive Skills Questions and Answers | TCS study material PDF | TCS NQT 2023 Questions and Answers | TCS NQT Previous Year Question Papers with Answers

TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Questions & Answers 2023 | TCS NQT Exam Preparation Material:  Tata Consultancy Services administers the TCS NQT Examination to choose qualified applicants by evaluating how well they performed on the General Ability Tests. The TCS National Qualifier Test (NQT), a crucial step in the selection process to be eligible for the positions at Tata Consultancy Services, is something for which applicants should accurately and confidently prepare. does this for them. Candidates need to be aware of how difficult these tests are. There are several ways to practise material, including taking quizzes, responding to question banks, finishing papers from earlier years, and taking mock exams. Practice sessions may be included in the study schedule. Solving TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Question Papers with a Solution is one of the best ways to assess the format and level of difficulty of the question. Here get the latest private jobs

TCS National Qualifier Test: Outline

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  • Mark cards of all NQT variants are valid for two years
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TCS NQT Cognitive Ability Mock Test

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TCS NQT Programming Exam Pattern 2023 | TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Exam Pattern

The exam’s various components receive separate mark distributions. The candidates must complete the paper within the allotted time. Understanding the content and exam format very well would help you pass the exam with ease. Before the exam, the commission makes the exam pattern available as a PDF file. Candidates can view this website to learn more about the syllabus and Exam pattern

Section Expected Questions Duration (Minutes)
Numerical Ability 26 Questions 40 Minutes
Verbal Ability 24 Questions 30 Minutes
Reasoning Ability 30 Questions 50 Minutes
Programming Logic 10 Questions 15 Minutes
Hands-on Coding 01 Questions 15 Minutes
Hands-on Coding 01 Questions 30 Minutes

TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Syllabus | TCS NQT 2023 Syllabus PDF

TCS iON (NQT) is the test provider for the TCS NQT hiring process. The test contains two parts which are Part A and Part B. Part A contains 120 mins duration to complete the TCS Ninja NQT and Part B contains 60 mins. The Total Test Duration is 180 Minutes.

 TCS NQT Exam Scheme 2023

The syllabus for any examination is a must, as it assists in gauging the importance of exact topics where candidates’ skills are tested. Knowing the TCS  Syllabus also eases the preparation by defining the topics on which a candidate can be tested. Understanding the TCS NQT exam pattern is of utmost importance to know the scheme of the examination and to prepare accordingly.

 PART A (Cognitive Skills):-

  • Numerical Ability: 40 Mins (26 Questions)
  • Verbal Ability: 30 Mins (24 Ques.)
  • Reasoning Ability: 50 Mins (30 Ques)
  • Total: 120 Mins

PART B (Programming):-

  • Programming Logic: 15 Mins (10 Ques.)
  • Hands-on Coding: 45 Mins (02 Ques.)
  • Total: 60 Mins

TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Questions 2023

TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Numerical Ability Section 

Number System

  • Number System, LCM & HCF
  • Divisibility
  • Numbers & Decimal Fractions


  • Geometry
  • Area, Shapes & Perimeter

Arithmetic Ability

  • Percentages
  • Allegations and Mixtures
  • Ratios, Proportion
  • Work and Time
  • Speed Time and Distance
  • Profit and Loss
  • Averages
  • Equations
  • Ages
  • Series and Progressions

Elementary Statistics

  • Mean,
  • Median,
  • Mode,
  • Variance, and
  • Standard Deviation

Data Interpretation

  • Pie Charts
  • Tabular DI
  • Graphical DI

Simplifications & Approximations

  • Simplifications and Calculations (Rational and Irrational Number)
  • Not asked in the past two years:
    • Probability
    • Clocks & Calendar

TCS NQT Numerical Ability Questions and Answers 2023

Simple Interest

On January 1, 2016, Rs.12500 was invested at a rate of 4% simple interest p.a. On July 1, 2016, how much interest in rupees will have accrued at the end of the day?

  1. 240
  2. 250
  3. 400
  4. 500

Answer: Option B


P (principal amount) = Rs. 12500

T (time of for which money was invested) = 6 months = 0.5 yrs

R (rate of interest) = 4%

SI (simple interest earned) = P*T*R/100

= (12500*1/2*4)/100

= 250.

Time and Work

Work is assigned to 6 men and 12 women, and they could complete it in 3 days. It was also observed that they could do seven times as much work as a man and a woman together. In how many days would 14 women have done the work?  

  1. 10
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 9

Answer: Option D


Let the efficiency of men and women doing the work be ‘m’ and ‘w’

Total work = 3 * (6m + 12w) as it takes 3 days to complete the work.

Also it is given that 6m + 12w = 7(m+w)

=> m/w = 5

Let m = 5 units, this implies that w = 1 unit

Total work = 3(6*5+12*1) = 126 units

Time taken by 14 women to complete the work is 126/4 = 6 days.


What is the difference between m and n if the HCF of 180 and 432 is (180m + 432n), where m and n are integers?

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

Answer: Option B


We find the HCF of 180 and 432 to be 36

180m + 432n = 36 – – – – – – – – – – – (1)

We can write 432 = 2(180) + 72

=> 72 = 432 – 2(180)

Also we can write 180  = 2(72) + 36

=> 180 = 2(432 – 2(180)) + 36

=> 180 = 2(432) – 4(180) + 36

=> 36 = 5(180) – 2(432) – – – – – – – – – – (2)

Comparing (1) and (2)

m = 5, n = -2

m-n = 5-(-2) = 7

Ratio and Proportion

Given 0.006, 1.2, and 6/25, what is the fourth proportional?

  1. 48
  2. 4.8
  3. 36
  4. 3.6

Answer: Option A


Here, we use one of the properties of proportion that is:  product of means = product of extremes, so,

Let x be the fourth proportional:

0.006: 1.2 :: 6/25 : x

=> x = (1.2 * 6/25)/0.006

=> x = 48


The index numbers of five commodities are 121, 123, 125, 126, and 128, respectively, with weights of 5, 11, 10, 8, and 6. What is the weighted average index number?

  1. 123.8
  2. 124.6
  3. 124.2
  4. 125.2

Answer: Option B


The weighted average index number = 121*5 + 123*11 + 125*10 + 126*8 + 128*65

= 124.6

To get the mean and median to be equal, what value should the highest quantity in data 65, 52, 14, 32, 26, 35, 18, 38 be replaced?

  1. 51
  2. 53
  3. 64
  4. 66

Answer: Option B


Sorting the given data in ascending order: 14, 18, 26, 32, 35, 38, 52, 65

Median = (32+35)/2 = 33.5

We replace 65 with ‘x’, also we are given that mean and median must be equal

Mean = 33.5

=> (14 + 18, + 26 + 32 + 35 + 38 + 52 + x) / 8 = 33.5

Solving for ‘x’ we get x = 53.

Profit and Loss

A retailer paid Rs P for 25 identical toys and then sold some of them for Rs P. How many did he sell if he estimated his profit at 8% and used the selling price as the base instead of the cost price?

  1. 20
  2. 21
  3. 23
  4. 24

Answer: Option C


Let the cost price (CP) of 25 toys be ‘P.’

Therefore, CP of each toy = P/25

Let the number of toys sold be ‘x.’

CP of the toys sold = x*P/25

Selling price (SP) of the toys sold = P

In this case, profit percentage was calculated with selling price as the base.

So, Profit % = (SP-CP)/SP * 100

8/100 = (P – x*P/25)/ P

Solving for ‘x’ we get x = 23.

Time and Distance

Two ants are moving at average speeds of 2 and 3 mm per second in opposite directions. The former is 1 cm long, whereas the latter is 1.2 cm long. How long will it take for them to cross paths?

  1. 0.4
  2. 2.8
  3. 4.4
  4. 1.5

Answer: Option C


Here, we have used the concept of relative speeds to solve this problem. Relative distance for ant1 to cover w.r.t ant2 = 1cm + 1.2cm = 2.2cm

Also, the relative speed of ant1 w.r.t ant2 = 2 + 3 mm per second = 5 mm per second.

Hence the time taken for the ants to cross paths is 22/5 = 4.4mm per second.

A man who has to walk 11 km finds that he has covered two-ninth of the remaining distance in 30 minutes. What is his speed in km/h?

  1. 4
  2. 4.8
  3. 4.2
  4. 4.5

Answer: Option A


Let the remaining distance = ‘d’ km

Distance covered by him in 30mins (0.5 hr) = 2d/9 km

Now, d + 2d/9 = 11 (total distance given in the question = 11km)

=> d = 9km

Therefore distance covered by him in 30 mins = 2*9/9 = 2 km

We know that speed = distance/time

So, speed = 2km/0.5hr = 4km per hour.

TCS NQT Cognitive Skills Reasoning Questions And Answers 2023

Prepositional Reasoning

There are three categories of people on this island. Nobles, who always tell the truth, scoundrels, who always lie, and spies, who can do either. You’ll encounter three persons in these puzzles: a noble, a scoundrel, and a spy. The task is to figure out who is who. “I am a Noble,” says A. “A is a Noble,” says B. “If you asked me, I’d say A is the spy,” C says.

  1. It can’t be determined.
  2. Scoundrel
  3. Noble
  4. Spy

Answer: Can’t be determined.


If A is telling the truth which will lead to proving that B is saying the truth, then we have to conclude that C is lying. Thus the answer would look like

A → Noble

B → spy

C → scoundrel

However, if we also include the case where we will consider that A and B are lying, while C is telling the truth, then the answer would be

A → spy

B → scoundrel

C → Noble

As a result, Both answers could be correct. Therefore the answer is unpredictable and impossible to anticipate.

In the year 2003, February had 28 days and the year had 365 days. In 2004, there were 29 days in the month of February, and there were 366 days in the whole year. Which of the following would be the day for March 11, 2004, if the date March 11, 2003, is a Tuesday?

  1. Monday
  2. Tuesday
  3. Wednesday
  4. Thursday

Answer: Thursday

Explanation: Every year, the number of days is raised by one odd day. And, in a leap year, it is increased by two odd days.

So, the 11th of March 2003 is a Tuesday, and the 11th of March 2004 is a Thursday.

What is the number of identical pieces obtained if two, three, and four cuts are made parallel to separate faces of a cube?

  1. 40
  2. 27
  3. 60
  4. 25

Answer: 60


You’ll get “x+1” pieces for “x” cuts.

As a result, the no. of pieces you will get is = (2+1)*(3+1)*(4+1)


=60 pieces.

Visual/ Spatial Reasoning

Which of the following responses can be made by folding the figure given in the question from the possibilities offered?



  1. answer figure 1
  2. answer figure 2
  3. answer figure 3
  4. answer figure 4

Answer: B

Explanation: The rotated figure will be our answer if we rotate the section drawn with blue in a clockwise orientation.
Rotated figure

 How many people in the given figure enjoy both cricket and tennis?


Venn diagram

  1. 17
  2. 32
  3. 27
  4. 15

Answer: 32


Cricket fans = 9,12,15,17

Tennis fans = 8,15, 17, and 21.

Those who enjoy both= 15 + 17 = 32

Arrange the words in the following list in a meaningful order. 1. Money 2. Social standing 3. Education 4. Wellbeing 5. Work

  1. 1,5,3,2,4
  2. 2,1,3,5,4
  3. 3,5,1,2,4
  4. 5,4,2,1,3

Answer: C (3,5,1,2,4)

Education – Work – Money – Social standing – Wellbeing

Arrange the words in the following list in a meaningful order. 1. Country 2. Furniture 3. Forest 4. Wood 5. Trees

Option A – 1,2,3,4,5

Option B – 5,4,3,2,1

Option C – 3,5,4,2,1

Option D – 1,3,5,4,2

Answer: D (1,3,5,4,2)

Solution – Country->Forest->Trees->wood->Furniture

Logical sequence of getting by-product from wood starting from County & the Forest.

What could be the next term in the series QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____

  1. UAV
  2. UAT
  3. TAS
  4. TAT

Answer: UAV

Explanation: If we look at the series, the third letter of the first word is the first letter of the next consecutive word. Along with this, the middle term is not changing, so finally, to find the third letter, we can observe that the first and third letters of the word are two consecutive letters.

So the first letter is the third letter of TAU, which is U. And the second letter is the repeating letter A, And the third letter is consecutive of U, which is V.

Which of the following options could be the next term?

9, 18, 11, 16, 14, 13, 18, 9, 23, ? 

  1. 18
  2. 4
  3. 15
  4. 2

Answer: B-4

Explanation: Let’s take a look at all of the even place terms and all of the odd place terms individually.

The Oddly placed terms are:

9, 11, 14, 18, 23 – if we calculate the difference between two consecutive numbers then it would look like.


The Even placed terms are:

18, 16, 13, 9, ? – And, similarly, if we calculate the difference here, it will go in a similar magnitude but with a negative sign.


So, In order to calculate the last term, we need to subtract five from nine.

Which is:  9-5 = 4.

Figure and Fractal Analysis

Select a box that resembles the one made from the given sheet of paper (X).

  1. answer figure 1
  2. answer figure 2
  3. answer figure 3
  4. answer figure 4


  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 1 and 3
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: Only 2

Explanation: Here, we can observe that

A lies opposite D

B lies opposite F

C lies opposite E

The diagram (X) provided is similar to the one shown above. When the sheet in Diagram (X) is folded to form a cube, ‘F’ is placed opposite ‘B,’ ‘E’ is placed opposite ‘C,’ and ‘A’ is placed opposite ‘D.’. As a result, the cube in Diagram (1) with ‘F’ next to ‘B,’ the cube in Diagram (3) with ‘E’ next to ‘C,’ and the cube in Diagram (4) with ‘A’ next to ‘D’ cannot be created.

As a result, only the cube shown in Diagram(2) can be created.

Select the appropriate option for how the pattern will appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line.

Sheet figure

  1. answer figure 1
  2. answer figure 2
  3. answer figure 3
  4. answer figure 4


  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: Diagram 4

Explanation: The curved lines in Diagram(1) are in the wrong order. The vertical and horizontal lines in Diagrams (2) and (3) are incorrectly combined.

As a result, Diagram (4) is the proper response.

Decision Making 

Given Statements:

All liquids are solids.

All gases are clouds.

Some solids are gases.

Conclusion to be followed:

  1. Some clouds are solids
  2. Some solids are clouds
  3. Some clouds are liquids
  4. Some gases are liquids


  1. Only II follows
  2. Only I and IV follow
  3. Only IV follows
  4. Only III follows

Answer: Only I and IV follow.

Explanation: Let’s try to understand this question by Venn diagrams for each state.

Venn diagram
In which year was David born?

Statement 1: David is 25 years younger than his mother at the present moment.

Statement II: David’s younger brother, who was born in 1964, is 33 years younger than his mother.

  1. Statement-I alone is sufficient, while Statement-II alone is not sufficient.
  2. Statement-II alone is sufficient, while Statement-I alone is not sufficient.
  3. Either Statement-I or Statement-II is sufficient.
  4. Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is sufficient.
  5. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are sufficient.

Answer: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are sufficient

Explanation: According to both Statement-I and Statement-II, we get to know that David is (33 – 25) = 8 years older than his brother, who was born in 1964. So, David was born in 1956.


Esha, Priya, Sejal, and Ava went to a college party with Finn, Leo, Axel, and Jack. There was going to be a dance party for everyone. Esha refused to dance with Finn or Axel, Sejal only knew disco dance, and Leo and Axel had never heard of disco. Ava and Axel are furious rivals who refuse to dance together. If given the option, Axel will not dance with Ava. Sejal is Jack’s partner. Ava had a dancing partner, but who was it?

  1. Finn
  2. Leo
  3. Axel
  4. Jack

Answer: A-Finn

Explanation: Let’s first write down the important pieces of information given in the problem.

  • Esha refuses to dance with either Finn or Axel.
  • Sejal refuses to dance with Leo and Axel because she only knows disco, and neither Leo nor Axel do.
  • Because Ava and Axel are bitter foes, Ava will not dance with him.
  • Leo isn’t interested in dancing with Ava.
  • Jack and Sejal are dancing together.

Jack and Sejal are dancing together. So, Esha, Priya, and Ava are the remaining girls, and Finn, Leo, and Axel are the remaining boys. At the same time, Esha isn’t interested in dancing with Finn or Axel.

So, as a result, Esha will perform with Leo. And then Priya and Ava are the two girls on the left.

Finn and Axel are the only boys left. Ava isn’t going to dance with Axel. So, Finn and Ava will dance.

Therefore, Axel and Priya will dance together.

Sejal <————> Jack

Esha <————> Leo

Ava <————> Finn

Priya <————> Axel

How am I related to my grandmother’s only child’s husband’s mother?

  1. Grandmother
  2. Mother
  3. Sister
  4. Aunt

Answer: Grandmother

Explanation: If we think clearly about the relationship mentioned above, then we can easily summarise that My mother is the only child of my grandmother. And though My father is my mother’s husband. My grandmother is my father’s mother.

She is my mother’s mother’s son’s daughter, Harry said while holding up a photograph. What is the relationship between the person in the photograph and Harry?

  1. Sister
  2. Niece
  3. Mother
  4. Cousin

Answer: Cousin

Explanation: Harry’s mother’s mother’s son is the uncle of harry. Harry’s uncle’s daughter is Harry’s cousin.

John loses his way in a very dense jungle. He travels away from his tent at random but mathematical in a very interesting sense. He walks one mile east first, then half a mile north. Then 1/4 mile to the west, 1/8 mile to the south, and so on to complete the loop. Finally, how far away from his camp is he, and in which direction is he heading?

  1. 0.98 miles
  2. 0.56 miles
  3. 0.76 miles
  4. 0.44 miles

Answer: 0.76 miles

Explanation: We can see that he is moving into a loop which will look like

Structure of loop

To reach the camp, John must go 0.75 miles west and 0.375 miles south.

Didn’t get how? Let’s see this in detail then.

How: First, the soldier moves 1 mile east of the camp, then 1/2 mile north of camp. Then it moves 1/4 mile to the west or 0.25 mile. Then it’s 1/8 mile to the south (0.125 miles).

Now all we have to do is subtract the value of camp to the east from the value of camp to the west = 1 mile – 0.25miles(1/4) = 0.75 miles

Similarly, 0.50 miles(1/2) – 0.125 miles(1/8) = 0.375 miles for north and south

As a result, the soldier must go 0.75 miles west and 0.375 miles south in order to return to camp.

And to calculate that, we will use the basic Pythagoras theorem.

square root of ((0.75)^2 + (0.125)^2)

= square root of ((3/4)^2+(1/8)^2)

= square root of ((9/16) +(1/64))

= square root of (36+1)/64

= square root of (37/64)

= 0.76

And, the final direction will be in South – West.

A young lady departs from her home. She walks 30 meters in a north-westerly direction, then 30 meters in a south-westerly direction. She then travels 30 meters to the southeast. She finally makes her way back to her residence. In which direction does she seem to be heading?

  1. Northeast
  2. Southeast
  3. Southwest
  4. Northwest
  5. None of these

Answer: Northeast

Explanation: Let’s try to understand this problem with a diagram.


By just looking at the figure, we can easily say that, In order to return back to the house, she would go in the north-east direction.

TCS NQT Verbal Ability Questions And Answer 2023

Find out the erroneous part – 

Honestly speaking/I Like her not because / she is beautiful and charming / but that she is  exceedingly kind.

(a) Honestly speaking

(b) I like her not because

(c) but that she is exceedingly kind

(d) she is beautiful and charming

Answer: Error over here is in option (c); this is wrong because when two reasons are being told or given must have the same format before it, or even the entire format of the reason has to be the same.

In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error.  Determine which part of the phrase is incorrect.

I need to get to the house in Mainstreet Road by nine o’clock.

(a) I need to get to the house in

(b) Mainstreet Road by

(c) nine o’clock

(d) no error

Answer: The error is in part (a) the word (in) is completely wrong. Because we are talking about a house which is situated near Mainstreet road. Instead of (in) the correct word should be (on) or (at)

Choose the option closest in meaning.


(a) Common               (b) Ridiculous

(c) Dignified               (d) Petty

Answer: AUGUST = having great importance and respect.

So, the most suitable word is the Dignified option (c).

Choose the option closest in meaning.


(a)  Complimentary      (b) Disparaging

(c)  Dignified                (d) Flattering

Answer: DEROGATORY = showing strong disapproval and not showing respect.

Disparaging = Criticizing someone, in a way that shows you don’t respect them. So, the closest word is the Disparaging option(b).

In the following question, fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option. 

The government has been promising the eradication of child labor in high-risk industries in India for many years. However , almost 105 million children are still not able to go to school, and around 9.5 million children are working in (1)_________________ industries .India has the biggest child population of 381 million in the world, the (2)___________number of children who are forced to earn money.

Blank 1

(a) Honorary  (b) hazardous   (c) handicraft    (d) hardware

Blank 2

(a) largest     (b) lowest           (c) latest           (d)  loudest

(a) Handicraft, Lowest        (c) Hazardous, largest

(b) Hardware, Latest          (d) Honorary, loudest

Answer:  The answer for this question is (hazardous and largest) that is an option (c).

Explanation: Because as we can see the industries are high risk, so it means that these industries are not ideal for children to work in, so for blank 1 the most appropriate word is (b) hazardous. As we can see the sentences are not so positive, it talks about the negative effect of child labor. So for blank 2, the most appropriate word is (a) largest.

Once upon a time there (1)_________(live)  a man called Peter. A friend of his eventually became the ruler of a small city. Peter thought, ‘ How lucky my friend is. He is now a ruler. He must be having a great time. He must have fine clothes, lots of money, and a number of servants. I wish I had his luck. He (2)________(decide) to visit his friend to enjoy his hospitality. When he (3)________ (reach) the palace, the king himself received him with respect and affection. Peter then told the king that he was overwhelmed to see him. The king smiled. He invited his friend to have dinner with him.

(a)Liven, decide , reach               (b) Live, will decide, arrive

(c) Lived , decided, reached       (d) Living , deciding, arriving

Answer: Sentence starts with once upon a time which shows the past condition so it should be lived by following past tense so for Blank 1 (Lived). Blank 2 (Decided ) should be there as per past tense. Blank 3 (Reached) should be there as followed by past tense. 

Identify the word with a correct spelling

(a) Prudent (b) Prudant

(c) Puredent (d) Predant

Answer:  (a)Prudent: careful and avoiding risks.

“It’s always prudent to read a legal paper carefully before signing it”.

 Identify the word with a correct spelling

(a) Metticulous                (b) Meticuelous

(c) Meticulous                 (d) Meticurelous

Answer:  (c)Meticulous: giving or showing careful attention to every detail.

“This is a detailed and meticulous study, which was done by scientists.”

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful.

Cinderella sings very well and ___________does Peter .

(a)even             (b) too

(c)  Also            (d) so

Answer:  (d)so

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful.

The waiter hasn’t brought the chocolate shake_____________I’ve been here an hour already.

(a)  up                       (b) yet

(c)  still                      (d) till

Answer: (b) yet

In the questions below, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences are removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as W, E, K, and T. Give the proper order for the four sentences.

S1: I saw two men at the bus station.

W: Both of them went to the tea shop together.

E: The first one was holding a walking stick.

K: The second one was holding a book.

T: After tea, one of them left the tea shop.

S6:  The second one waited for his sister later.

(a)  WTEK                       (b) EKWT

(c)  WTKE                       (d) EWKT

Answer:  (b) EKWT . (S1) is followed by (E) as it says about the first man. (E) is followed by (K) as it talks about the second man. (K) is followed by (W) as it talks about their going to a tea shop together. (W) is followed by (K), and finally (T) as they state their next steps. Hence, the correct order is (EKWT).

In the questions below, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences are removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as W, E, K, and T. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

S1: Earthquake means the shaking of the Earth’s tectonic plates.

W: It is a sudden trembling of the tectonic plates.

E: Furthermore, Earthquakes can aggravate life threats and property damages.

K: Earthquakes certainly are terrible natural disasters.

T: Some Earthquakes are not strong in nature and probably go unnoticed.

S6: In contrast, some Earthquakes are major and life-threatening.

(a)  KETW                       (b) KEWT

(c)  WKET                       (d) TEKW

Answer:  (c) WKET

The passage discusses earthquakes, their meaning and effect on nature, life, property, and finally its characterization.

Complete the sentence by selecting the most appropriate word from the given options.

‘John made some __________remarks to the American President. He was soundly chastised by his reporters.’

(a) reverent  (b) Irreverent

(c) flattering  (d) complimentary

(e) praise

Answer:  (b)’Irreverent’ means lacking respect or seriousness. Here, we can choose the right word by invoking the cause-effect logic.

Complete the sentence by selecting the most appropriate word from the given options.

‘She’s got a sharp __________. She might just get into trouble if she isn’t careful.

(a)   Tongue           (b) intellect

(c)   Mouth             (d) vision

(e)   Brain

Answer:  (a)Tongue as the other four options do not complete the sense of the sentence.

There may be inaccuracies in certain portions of the sentence. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

‘My great grandmother used (A) / to go (B) / for a walk (C) / every evening. (D) / No error (E)’

(a) to go                  (b) for a walk

(c) every evening    (d) No error

Answer:  Option (d) The sentence is absolutely correct and thus has no error in it.

There may be inaccuracies in certain portions of the sentence. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the most appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

(A) One of the cabinet members/(B) expressed doubt if/(C) the Chief Minister was an atheist./(D) No error.

(a) One of the cabinet members             (b) expressed doubt if

(c)  the Chief Minister was an atheist      (d) No error

Answer: expressed doubt that whenever there is only one fact stated, the sentence uses ‘that’. “if’ is used in more than one fact.


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